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Exam Code: 1Z0-898
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 6 Java Persistence API Developer Certified Expert Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Consider a persistence application with the following orm.xml:
What will be the effect of the above orm.xml?
A.The access type for only those entities that have not explicitly specified @Access will be defaulted to
field.
B.The access type for all entities in the persistence unit will be changed to FIELD.
C.The access type for allentities specified in this orm.xmlwill be changed to FIELD.
D.The access type for only those entities defined in thisorm-xml for which access is notspecified will be
defaulted to FIELD.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An application that uses pessimistic locking calls an updateData method that results in a
LockTimeoutException being thrown.What three statements are correct? (Choose three)
A.The current transaction continues.
B.The current statement continues.
C.The current transaction is rolled back.
D.The current statement is rolled back.
E.The LockTimeoutException can NOT be caught.
F.The LockTimeoutException can be caught, and the updateData method retried.
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.3 Given the following code:
Public void create () {
try {
doA () {
} catch (PersistenceException e) {} try (doB) ();
} catch (PersistenceException e) {}
}
Calling method doA will cause an NonUniqueResultException to be thrown.Calling method doB will cause
an EntityExistsException to be thrown.
What two options describe what will happen when the create method is called within an application ' uses
container managed transactions? (Choose two)
A.Method doB will never be called.
B.The current transaction will continue after doA executes.
C.The current transaction will continue after doB executes.
D.The current transaction will be marked for rollback when doA is called.
E.The current transaction will be marked for rollback when doB is called.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 A developer wrote an entity class with the following method:
Private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger ( ° m yLogge¡± )
@PrePersist @PreUpdate Public void doA () { Logger.info ( ° ¡± ); } @ P o s t P ersis t @ P o s t U pd ate Pu b l ic v oi
doB () { logger.info ( ° ¡± );
What will the log message contain when an application does the following?
Begins a transaction
Creates the entity
Persists the entity
Commits the transaction
Begins the entity data
Modifies the entity data
Merges the entity
Commits the second transaction
A.A A B B
B.A B A B
C.A B B A B
D.The application will throw an exception because multiple lifecycle callback annotations applied to a
single method.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A developer has created an application managed entity manager.Which statement is correct?
A.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
B.A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
C.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context o\ transaction.
D.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local
transaction.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Given:
Which statement is correct?
A.The method will return TRUE.
B.The method will return FALSE.
C.The method will throw an exception.
D.The order instance will be removed from the database.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Entity lifecycle callback methods may be defined in which three classes.? (Choose three)
A.Embedded classes
B.Entity classes
C.Abstract classes
D.Entity listener classes
E.Mapped superclasses
F.Concrete non-entity superclasses
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on
two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A.Use an @id property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B.Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @idclass annotation to denote I primary
key field or property in the entity.
C.Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @EmbeddedId annotation
to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D.Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two column and add two fields or properties the
entity, each marked as @id, that correspond to the fields or properties in the embeddable class.
E.Use a separate class to map those two columns.Specify that class using @Idclass annotation on the
entity class.Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or
properties in that separate class.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 A developer has created a deep entity class hierarchy with many polymorphic relationships between
entitles.Which inheritance strategy, as defined by the inheritanceType enumerated type, will be most
performed in this scenario?
A.Single table-per-class-hierarchy (InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE)
B.Joined-subclass (inheritanceType.JOINED)
C.Table-per-concrete-class (inheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS)
D.Polymorphic join table (inheritanceType.POLYMORPHIC_JOIN_TABLE)
Answer: C

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NO.10 A developer wants to model the grades for a student as a Map<course, integer>.Assume that Student
and Course are entitles, and that grades are modeled by integers.
Which of the following two statements are correct? (Choose two)
A.The developer can model the grades as an element collection in the Student entity.
B.The developer can model the grades as a oneToMany relationship in the Student entity.
C.The mapping for the key of the map can be specified by the @MapKeycolumn annotation.
D.The mapping for the value of the map can be specified by the @Column annotation.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-574
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.10 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.14 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.18 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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NO.19 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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Exam Name: Oracle (Pillar Axiom 600 Storage System Essentials Exam)
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Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 By using which Pillar Axiom feature can you allocate system resources and handle data flow according
to its business priority?
A. Quality of Service
B. Thin Provisioning
C. Storage Domains
D. Storage Profiles
Answer: A

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NO.2 The storage administrator is viewing the Axiom storage systems and would like to create a volume for
the SAN host. Which GUI component is used to manage this task?
A. AxiomONE MaxMan
B. AxiomONE Storage Services Manager
C. AxiomONEStorage Manager
D. AxiomONEQoS Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 The storage administrator is creating a volume and wants to protect it from a full Brick failure. Identify
the protection level needed to accomplish this configuration.
A. Standard Redundancy
B. RAID10
C. Double Redundancy
D. assigning the volume toa Storage Domain
Answer: C

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NO.4 Indentify what must be required in order to receive alerts and email notifications from the Axiom storage
system.
A. Email server
B. SNMP host
C. Call Home enabled
D. Primary Administratorcreated
Answer: A

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NO.5 The storage administrator needs to download the CLI for scripting purposes. Identify where
administrator should go to download the CLI.
A. the HTML from the Pilot:
B. the customer FTP site
C. the Support tab in the AxiomONE GUI
D. the customer support center
E. the customer support portal
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why does it matter if the source power for a PDU is 115v, 208v, or 230v?
A. The Bricks, Slammers, and Pilots will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU.
B. The Bricks and Slammers will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU but the Pilot
will not draw much to make a difference.
C. The Bricks and Pilots will draw the same amperes and not enough to make a difference but the
Slammers will draw different amperes depending on the input to the PDU.
D. It does not matter because the Bricks, Slammers, and Pilots will draw the same amperes.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The development team needs a volume that contains data from the production system for testing.
Identify the best Pillar Axiom storage system method that can solve this challenge.
A. Copy LUN
B. Clone LUN
C. Snapshot
D. Clone Volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 The storage administrator is creating a LUN. Which organizational units can the LUN be assigned to?
A. Storage Class
B. Typical Access
C. Volume Group
D. Storage Domain
E. Clone LUN Group
Answer: C

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NO.9 From which three sources can the system information be collected and placed into the bundle?
A. Slammer hardware components
B. Brick hardware components
C. Client hosts with APM
D. AxiomONEStorage Manager
E. SAN Switch
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which three Axiom storage system resources can the storage administrator monitor?
A. Running Tasks
B. Storage Usage
C. System Alerts
D. SAN Host Performance
E. SAN Switch Tasks
F. Power Usage
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 Data Protection Manager gives you the capability to schedule backups of the application data on
regular basis. Identify the name for the scheduled backups.
A. checkpoints
B. consistency groups
C. point-in-time backups
D. application-aware backup
Answer: D

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NO.12 The storage administrator is looking for a specific event in the event log. Identify three event severities
that can be filtered.
A. Informational
B. Critical
C. Error
D. Warning
E. Normal
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Identify the information required during the installation of the Axiom VSS plug-in. Select all that apply.
A. User Name
B. Password
C. System Serial Number
D. VSS Provider Name
E. Port Number
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 The storage administrator would like to modify one of the system profiles. How can the storage
administrator do this?
A. by selecting "Manage Standard Storage Profiles" and modifying the system profile
B. by selecting "Manage Advanced Storage Profiles" and modifying the system profile
C. by selecting "Manage Standard Storage Profiles" and duplicating the system profile
D. by selecting "Manage Advanced Storage Profiles" and duplicating the system profile
Answer: D

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NO.15 Identify what the default trending charts provide.
A. Defaulttrending charts provide a quick overview of the most commonly referred tocharacteristicsof the
selected LUN overthe last few hours.
B. Default trending charts provide a quick overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last 24 hours.
C. Default trending charts provide a detailed overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last few hours.
D. Default trending charts provide a detailed overview of the most commonly referred to characteristics of
the selected LUN over the last 24 hours.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g General Ledger Essentials)
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Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 During the analysis phase of the implementation, it was discovered that there were some
expense
entries that are paid in the current month for services rendered in the next month, the client wants
to defer the expense and recognize it in the next month. What would you recommend?
A. Create two accounting events: one for payment and one for recognition.
B. Use Account Derivation rules to create two different entries.
C. Use multiperiod accounting-enabled Journal Line Types.
D. Use Journal Line Definitions.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Identify the option that needs to be selected at the header level when assigning a header
level
subledger Journal Rule Set.
A. Accounting Date
B. Description
C. Supporting Reference
D. Ledger
E. Currency
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Receivables and Payables accounts that are automatically generated by intercompany
transactions use rules and attributes in what order?
A. Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger Level Rules;Chart of
Account Rules
B. Ledger entity Level Rules; ledger Level Rules; Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing
Segment Rules
C. Chart of Account Rules; Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
D. Ledger Level Rules;Primary Balancing Segment Rules;Ledger Entity Level Rules; Chart of
Accounts Rules
E. Chart of Account Rules; Ledger Entity Level Rules, Primary Balancing Segment Rules; Ledger
Level Rules
Answer: A

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NO.4 An invoice with two lines is entered, later that day an adjustment is made to the invoice to add
another line. At the end of the day, the invoice is sent to the Fusion Accounting Hub. How many
events would you create?
A. Twoevents: one for invoice creation and one for the adjustment
B. Oneeventforinvoice creation; adjustment happened before transaction sent to the Fusion
Accounting Hub
C. Threeevents: one for invoice creation and two for line creation
D. Fourevents: one for invoice creation, one each for the two lines arid one for the adjustment
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are NOT included in the intercompany reconciliation reports?
A. Clearing company balancing lines
B. Intercompany receivables and intercompany lines generated by the intercompany balancing
feature
C. Intercompany receivables and Intercompany payables lines generated for the provider and
receiver of each intercompany transaction
D. Ledger balancing lines generated when the primary balancing segment value is in balance
butneither the second balancing segment northird balancing segment is out of balance; clearing
company balancing lines
Answer: A

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NO.6 When reconciling transactions, accounted amounts in a reconciliation report may be different
due
to differences in the currency conversion rates used. To mitigate the differences in the account
balances you should ____________.
A. Run the report using an additional common currency conversion rate
B. Run additional reports using a number of varied currency conversion rates
C. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Receivables account and rerun the report
D. Add a ledger-balancing line in the intercompany Payables account and rerun the report
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify two INVALID features of POV in Financial Reporting Studio.
A. Multiple grids cannot be Included in a report.
B. To identify that a dimension is set for grid POV, text row foot note should be added for a
gridPOV for a dimension.
C. A memberselection function with CurrentPOV as the member parameter changes to a User
POV when members are selected from a row, column or page axis on a grid.
D. POV book is specific to any report or grid object in report in that book.
E. All POVs allow a single member to be set for a dimension.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Choose the two Oracle Hyperion Reporting and Analysis products and artifacts, that can be
imported into financial Reporting.
A. Dynamic Report (* .des)
B. Impact Manage Transformation Scripts (*. Js)
C. Snapshot Reports (*.rpt)
D. Books. (*.kbk)
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Where do you perform real-time, ad hoc queries from a data warehouse?
A. General Accounting and Journals dashboards
B. Oracle Transaction Business Intelligence
C. Oracle Business Intelligence Analytics
D. Account Monitory and Account Inspector
Answer: D

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NO.10 XYZ Company has two departments: Marketing and Finance. The Finance Department has two
Functional divisions: receivables and payables. Select the flow for establishing hierarchy.
A. Hierarchy between functional divisions only
B. Hierarchy between departments only
C. Hierarchy between the organization and its departments, and between the departments and
their respective functional divisions
D. hierarchy between the organization and its departments and functional divisions only
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 For a Customers view object, you have defined a view criteria to show only U.S.
customers. On an ADF Faces page, you already have an ADF Faces table displaying
data from the Customers view object. How would you display a query panel on the
page that will allow you to select the view criteria and filter the existing Customers
table on the page?
A. Drag the view criteria as a query panel.
B. Drag the view criteria to the existing table and select query panel with table.
C. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the ID property of the query
panel to reference the table.
D. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Resultcomponent ID
property of the query component to reference the table.
E. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Model property of the
query component to reference the table binding.
F. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the value property of the query
component to reference the table binding.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have found a declarative component that you would like to use on one of the
pages that you are designing. Choose the correct sequence of steps to add the
component to the page.
A. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the
current project. Select the declarative component and drag it to the page. Deploy the
component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
B. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Add the ADF library
to the current project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page. C. Add the ADF library to the current
project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative
component and drag it to the page.
Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
D. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF
library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative component and drag it to
the page. Add the ADF library to the current project.
E. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF library
from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the current project. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You select a binding In the page definition file and set the ChangeEventPolicy
property to ppr. What effect does this action have on the way the page is rendered?
A. It allows a component to partially refresh another component whose partialSubmit
property is set to true.
B. When a user selects a new value In a field, the portion of the page where that
component resides is redrawn.
C. It enables you to add a component as a partial target for an event, so that when that
event is triggered, the partial target component is refreshed.
D. Components whose values change as a result of back-end logic are automatically
repainted.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An application module is named MyAppModule. No Java component is defined for
the module but the application does define a base class that extends
racle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1. Which two statements are true in this
scenario?
A. Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1. java
extends the base class.
B. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C. No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java
component named MyAppModuleImp1. java does not exist.
D. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E. The MyAppModule. xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are debugging an application module method that seems to be causing an error
when the argument value is anything but "2". How could you most efficiently debug
this issue?
A. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint property to break only for threads named oracie.jbo.Exception.
B. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint pass count property to 2.
C. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint condition to arg ! = 2.
D. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and
step through the breakpoint at execution to determine the argument value.
E. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and set
the condition to arg == 2.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this
substantial
load, the database is over bridged and fails frequently. All data, included critical user records and
temporary session data, is stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new
database system cannot be installed.
Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. Creating more entity beans to optimize interaction wild the database
B. Refactoring the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. Refactoring the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. Adding more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are the architect at ACME, a large a large global retailer of festival and holiday accessories.
ACME wants to launch a new shopping portal for the holiday shopping session, allowing two
months from project inception to going live. The portal must contain in-house and third-party stock
to attack customers.
Fast response times are also critical so users remain engaged and sticky to the portal.
What would you recommend to the ACME project team to deliver this project?
A. Access all third party content using JSONP to dynamically load it from the browser.
B. Access as much content with bulk-loading as possible; use JSONP to access the remainder.
C. Access all content regardless of source using the HTML 5 XML parsing capabilities of the
browser
D. Access all third party content using JSON to dynamically load it from the browser.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about security strategies at the message level?
A. Messages are secured during transport and after arrival at their destination
B. Each portion of a compound message is secured.
C. SSL is required to ensure authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.
D. Message attachments are secured without the need for a dedicated API.
E. Security is dependent on the application environment or the transport protocol.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Your company is creating a Java EE corporate wide workflow system in winch significant
internal
business events are consumed by multiple applications. Due to multi-year development plans,
many of these applications do not exist yet, even at the design stage. IT has defined standard data
formats for these events in the form of small XML documents. Also, the rules for how an
application filters and processes events are not fixed In advance and can change over the life or
the application.
Which combination of technologies is best for distributing and consuming these events throughout
the company?
A. Relational database and JDBC
B. HTTP client library and servlets
C. Remote Method Invocation (RMI) and stateless session beans
D. Java Message Service (JMS) topics and message-driven beans
E. JMS queues and message-driven beans
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about transport-layer security?
A. It applies to both a message body and its attachments.
B. It is loosely coupled with the transport-layer protocol.
C. It is an end-to-end security mechanism.
D. It prevents the captured data from being replayed at a later time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Your CMC wants to move several web based search applications to an AJAX model, hoping to
improve user engagement with a browser experience that feels smaller and more responsive.
Which identifies a drawback to consider when adopting an AJAX model to improve user
experience?
A. Maintaining current performance could require more hardware.
B. Maintaining accessibility across clients may require more development.
C. Maintaining security within the page could be more difficult.
D. Maintaining page navigability for users would have to be re-evaluated.
E. Maintaining a scalable system could require redesigning applications.
Answer: C

Oracle questions   1Z0-807 study guide   1Z0-807

NO.7 You are consulting with a team that has maintained several legacy database for years. They
have
reviewed the JPA spec and are wondering if the technology would offer benefits over this current
SQL base.
Which statement identifies a risk of adopting JPA?
A. JPA only works with well-known data models.
B. JPA may be able to model every table as a class.
C. JPA could render code that requires extensive SQL tuning to perform well.
D. JPA’s query language relies on a container to manage the persistence layer.
E. JPA doesn’t provides ACID semantics.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the architect of a web application that uses javaServer Faces (JSF) as a presentation
tier
for business processes coded as stateless session beans. When you add new code to the
stateless session beans to address new accounting requirements, without changing the interface,
you discover that the new business processes are being ignored by some of the JSF components.
What might be the cause of this problem?
A. The presentation tier is relying on validation logic in the business tier.
B. The browser is caching out-of-date versions of the JSF components.
C. The business processes are not rigorously encapsulated in the session beans.
D. The new session beans have been deployed incorrectly, and proper deployment will resolve the
problem.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your company provides a marketplace for industrial chemicals. You are required to offer
accurate
pricing and quantities to all marketplace users.
Marketplace users are globally distributed.
What is the most appropriate technology to use to satisfy this requirement?
A. Server-side distribution using JAX-WS
B. Client-side polling using JAX-RPC
C. Web services using REST
D. An enterprise messaging system
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are the operations architect for a large online retailer. During peak times, your set of
monitored applications exhibits non-reproducible errors. The data center is growing at 50% per
annum, while your team headcount remains constant.
Which method would you use to implement an affective monitoring strategy?
A. Use the Visitor pattern to collect per-JVM statistics and store them centrally.
B. Use the Strategy pattern to encapsulate collection logic for each JVM.
C. Use the Thread Tracker to monitor the JVMs directly.
D. Use the Observer pattern to monitor each JVM directly.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Exam Name: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is
enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: E

Oracle practice questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 test   1Z0-060 practice test   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Type ofUnifiedauditing:
Standard
Fine Grained Audit
XS
Database Vault(not D)
Label Security(not C)
RMAN AUDIT(not B)
Data Pump(not A)
Note:
*Oracle 12c introduces Unified Auditing, which consolidates database audit records
including :-
DDL, DML, DCL
Fine Grained Auditing (DBMS_FGA)
Oracle Database Real Application Security
Oracle Recovery Manager
Oracle Database Vault
Oracle Label Security
Oracle Data Mining
Oracle Data Pump
Oracle SQL*Loader Direct Load

NO.2 You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that
are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Answer: A,E,G

Oracle study guide   1Z0-060 exam   1Z0-060
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage - Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).
Note: *Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to
supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle
Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above *Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a
feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the
Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated
with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than
traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

NO.3 Which three are true about the large poolfor anOracle database instance that supports
shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle demo   1Z0-060 Bootcamp   1Z0-060
Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/(B)UGA(User Global Area)for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where
transactions interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements
/(A)Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore
operations, I/O server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle
XA.
*Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction
manager other than Oracle Database.
*UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon
information, and can also contain the OLAP pool.
*Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list(not D). Oracle Database
does not attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if
the database instance uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in
the shared pool.
*Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore
operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates
buffers that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

NO.4 Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases(PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file '/u01 /app/oracle/oradata/CDB1 /temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: C,E

Oracle practice test   1Z0-060   Braindumps 1Z0-060
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN
never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control
files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files,
online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

NO.5 What are three purposes of the RMAN "FROM" clause?
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data
environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,C,E

Oracle   1Z0-060 exam dumps   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current
control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
*RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard
environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata
about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs,
standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are
created.

NO.6 You notice that the performance of your production 24 /7 Oracle database significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

Oracle exam dumps   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem. *Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was
performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point
where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare
Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a
total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.7 In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users
complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance
degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Note: *The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant
container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases
(PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that
appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were
non-CDBs. *The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to
an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control
information for a single process.

NO.8 You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You
use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: C,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 practice test   1Z0-060 study guide   1Z0-060 test questions
Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created
by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in
this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with
all user-defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There
are several options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more
disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is
saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names
the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

NO.9 Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two
pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the
default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offlineinACCOUNTS_PDB.
Answer: D

Oracle practice questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The
rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring
an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database
users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

NO.10 Examine the followingcommands forredefininga table withVirtual Private Database(VPD)
policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-060 test answers   1Z0-060 Bootcamp   1Z0-060 exam simulations   1Z0-060 exam
Explanation:
C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY /The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control
administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is
available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note: *CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag"
parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure.
CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while
CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary
keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These
logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during
refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty
interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

NO.11 Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: B,D

Oracle certification training   1Z0-060 test answers   1Z0-060
Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

NO.12 Open the database with RESETLOGS.

NO.13 Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

NO.14 Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 study guide   1Z0-060
Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically
registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration.
The registration is performed by the PMON process-an instance background process-of
each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization
parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the
listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter
setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the
listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It
receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to
the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a
database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle
Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to
remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server
environments.

NO.15 Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 exam
Explanation:
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing "all pdb files
lost".
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing...
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb(10)
startup mount;(1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable databsae
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system
tablespace of PDB.
*Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE
OPEN RESETLOGS;
9. Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle
Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-060 test   1Z0-060
Explanation:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run
different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users-either one
process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases
are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple
users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database
and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance
simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting
in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to
execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
10. In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage
administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your
Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions
access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle original questions   1Z0-060   1Z0-060 pdf   1Z0-060
Explanation:
A:You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same
time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not
supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
B: Note: *Transporting and Attaching Partitions for Data Warehousing Typical enterprise data
warehouses contain one or more large fact tables. These fact tables can be partitioned by date,
making the enterprise data warehouse a historical database. You can build indexes to speed up star
queries. Oracle recommends that you build local indexes for such historically partitioned tables to
avoid rebuilding global indexes every time you drop the oldest partition from the historical database.
D:Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored
in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates.
However, you can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this
fragmentation.

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