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Exam Code: HP0-M37
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 How can you change from tape drive licensing to capacity-based licensing?
A. Set the appropriate value in theomnirc file.
B. Disk-based storage is automatically detected.
C. Configure the global options file accordingly.
D. Select the Virtual Tape Library option inside the GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.2 After installing an HP Data Protector Software environment, you cannot connect to the HP-UX Cell
Manager. Which command do you use to verify that the services are running?
A. omnitrig -check
B. ps -ef | grep dataprotector
C. cat /etc/services |grep omni
D. omnisv -status
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP Data Protector Software command is used to format a tape?
A. omnifmt
B. omniinit
C. omniformat
D. omniminit
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which shell must be installed on the HP-UX system to perform an HP Data Protector Software 6.1
installation?
A. Korn Shell
B. C-Shell
C. Bourne Shell
D. Bash Shell
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can you install HP Data Protector Software on a different disk location on UNIX systems?
A. Set the installation destination.
B. Edit the install.cfg file before installation.
C. Create symbolic links before installing HP Data Protector Software.
D. Move HP Data Protector Software after the installation.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M35
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP TRIM 7.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Click on the menu option you should select to administer a SharePoint document in
HP TRIM, while allowing users to edit and use this document within SharePoint.
Answer:

NO.2 Users have the ability to perform a Record Request in HP TRIM, which places an electronic request in
the Record Request screen, accessed by Tools > Record > Record Request. Other than manually
deleting the Record Request, how is the Record Request removed from the Record Request screen?
A. by double clicking on the Record Request to fulfill the Request
B. by changing the record's assignee to the requestor's name
C. by right-clicking on the record and selecting Locations > Request
D. by changing the record's home location to the requestor's name
Answer: B

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NO.3 When creating a new document record for HP TRIM via Windows Explorer, the user should highlight the
document, right-click and select what?
A. Send to HP TRIM
B. New to HP TRIM
C. Open with HP TRIM
D. Properties for HP TRIM
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP TRIM function allows you to select the fields to "export" record metadata to a Word, Word
Perfect, or tab-delimited file?
A. TRIMPort
B. Print Merge
C. SuperCopy
D. Copy
Answer: B

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NO.5 For what purpose would you use the Print Report function?
A. to produce electronic documents
B. to generate barcode labels
C. to print workflows
D. to create HTML documents
Answer: B

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NO.6 Once a record is authorized for destruction, how should you change the status from Active to Destroyed
in HP TRIM?
A. Locate the record, right-click and select Properties. In the Title field, add the word Destroyed before the
title.
B. Locate the record, right-click and select Administrative Tools > Retention. Click the Disposition tab and
select the options to change disposition to Destroyed.
C. Locate the record and change the Home Assignee Locations to Destroyed for the record container.
D. Locate the record, right-click and select Record Type. Click on the record type that holds Destroyed
records, and then click OK.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How do you add activities to the Workflow template?
A. Select Tools > Add Activity.
B. Right-click, then select Add Activity.
C. Select Edit > New Activity.
D. Select File > New > Activity.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which action should you perform before importing data?
A. update locations
B. validate index
C. back up datasets and document stores
D. take dataset offline
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Export function supports many different elements of information. Which objects can be exported.?
(Select three.)
A. locations
B. record types
C. electronic documents
D. shortcut keys
E. metadata
F. document queues
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 What is the difference between the Check Out and Edit functions in HP TRIM?
A. Check Out shows that a document is checked out to a user and shows the check out in the Assignee
field; Edit allows you to edit an electronic document.
B. Check Out provides document revision/replacement option during Check In; Edit automatically creates
a revision with no user interaction.
C. Check Out acts as a placeholder for a document and prevents other users from viewing it if it is
checked out; Edit allows you to select the application that will be used to make changes in the document.
D. Check Out cannot be used on a document; Edit allows you to change the metadata properties of a HP
TRIM record.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP (HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E36
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 One of your customers has stated that they traditionally have difficulty allocating needed resources to
some key applications. You are also aware that they have issues with the over-provisioning of storage.
Which component of the HP Converged Infrastructure should you discuss with them?
A. Matrix Operating Environment
B. Virtual Resource Pools
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. Client Virtualization
Answer: B

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NO.2 The "wire once" approach of an HP Converged Infrastructure describes which key element.?
A. Fabric Grid
B. Network Fast Track
C. Network Optimization
D. Flex Fabric
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Sales Meeting Planner document described as SMART ± r e f e r s t o w h i ch cha r ac t e ri s ti cs?
A. Specific, Measurable, Accessible, Ready, Timebound
B. Strategic, Measurable, Accessible, Realistic, Timebound
C. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Realistic, Timebound
D. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Referral, Targeted
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool enables Sales and Pre-Sales professionals to have a broad discussion with customers about
the current and future states of their IT infrastructure?
A. Adaptive Infrastructure Maturity Model (AI MM)
B. Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model Express (CI MM Express)
C. HP StorageWorks Size
D. Alinean ROI Analyst
Answer: B

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NO.5 IT sprawl has been identified as a major problem. What percentage of IT budgets has been
traditionally spent on maintenance and operations?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 85%
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the turbulence in the economy over the past two years, what is most likely to happen with the IT
decision-making process?
A. More decisions will be made at the departmental level.
B. More decisions will be made by Finance directors and CFOs.
C. Most major decisions will be made within the IT department.
D. Budgets will free up at the first sign of economic recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your analysis of a customer environment indicates both legacy architecture and inflexible stacks of IT.
Which technology solution would improve their situation?
A. converged infrastructure
B. data deduplication
C. backup and archival
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two HP Converged Infrastructure Consulting Services? (Select two.)
A. Proof of Concept
B. Legacy Application Transformation
C. Open SAN Implementation Service
D. Architectural Transformation
E. Visioning Workshop
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which question focuses a customer most directly on the topic of converged infrastructure?
A. How long does it take to provision and launch new services?
B. Have you considered a pay-as-you-go IT model?
C. How do you manage who has access to your systems?
D. What measures do you have in place to protect your infrastructure from viruses and security
breaches?
Answer: A

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NO.10 Poor utilization and sprawl are preventing IT organizations from achieving which important objective?
A. increasing green IT initiatives
B. reducing the percentage of Direct Attach Storage (DAS)
C. increasing the amount of time on innovation
D. achieving regulatory compliance
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are two open and flexible features of BladeSystem Matrix? (Select two.)
A. choice of operating system and hypervisors
B. integrated security features
C. operation with standard networks and SANs
D. selected Blade enclosures
E. proprietary network standards
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 With HP Converged Infrastructure and a self-service portal, customers can accomplish which
objective?
A. reduce time to resolution on customer service calls
B. deploy new services quickly
C. increase sales coverage
D. improve brand recognition
Answer: B

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NO.13 Why should you ask your customer a Commitment question near the conclusion of a sales meeting?
A. to avoid discussion around value propositions
B. to use the opportunity as a trial close
C. to ensure the customer is interested in your services
D. to gather further information on the customer challenges
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is a key concept in the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. consolidating all direct-attached storage into one enterprise-class SAN
B. distributing all computer resources to the point of application usage
C. bringing the technology silos together into pools of virtualized assets that are shared by many
applications and services
D. utilizing HP Asset Manager to track and manage changes
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the most important element of a Compelling Business Reason (CBR)?
A. It is from the customer's point of view.
B. It is concise.
C. It highlights technical features.
D. It has financial targets.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A customer calls and says that the red power LED of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System is blinking nine
times. What does this indicate?
A. The system power is on, but the computer will not boot.
B. Processor thermal protection has been activated
C. A pre-video memory error has occurred.
D. USB ports have failed.
Answer: A

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NO.2 After initial setup of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System, a customer reports that the touchscreen monitor
is not responding to touch. What should you tell the customer to do?
A. Make sure the monitor power cable is connected to AC power.
B. Make sure the touchscreen drivers are installed and recalibrate the touchscreen
C. Spray the monitor with the special cleaning solution and gently wipe the surface clean.
D. Check the cable connections between the monitor and the system.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The optional 26.4-cm (104-inch) Customer Facing Display (CFD) is a replacement for which component
of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. resistive touchscreen
B. non-electronic advertisement panel
C. 2-line display (Vacuum Fluorescent Display-VFD)
D. Multitrack Magnetic Stripe Reader
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer complains that his touchscreen reads erratically and does not respond to a light touch. What
is a simple solution that might solve the problem?
A. Check the cable connection between the touchscreen and the system.
B. Clean the surface of the touchscreen and recalibrate it.
C. Gently shake the touchscreen to recalibrate the touch receptors.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which items that are not shipped with the HP ap5000 AiO POS System are required to recover the
operating system? (Select two)
A. keyboard
B. flash drive
C. optical drive
D. mouse
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which operating systems include McAfee Total Protection software in the preinstalled image for the HP
ap5000 AiO POS System.? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 7 Professional
B. FreeDOS
C. Windows XP Professional downgrade
D. POSReady 2009
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A customer asks where the COM ports are on the HP ap5000 AiO POS System. They are not clearly
visible. Where are they located?
A. behind the cover on the rear panel of the unit
B. on the bottom of the unit, under the pedestal
C. along the side of the resistive touchscreen
D. on the side of the monitor, behind the resistive touchscreen
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the All-in-One form factor of the HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. It is physically smaller than the chassis for the HP rp3000 POS System and HP rp5700 POS System
B. Its multiple expansion slots allow for greater expandability.
C. It requires only one power cord to turn on the entire unit including integrated peripherals.
D. It includes an integrated monitor and integrated POS keyboard.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How should a customer respond to a POST memory error message? (Select two.)
A. Press Enter to see more information about the error.
B. Press F1 to ignore the message and continue.
C. Press Ctrl/Alt/Delete to reboot the system
D. Press F10 to correct a system configuration error.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer wants to use a powered USB port but does not know how to locate it. Which statement is
true about the location and appearance of powered USB ports?
A. They are located on the rear I/O panel next to the AC power connector and are aligned vertically to
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
B. They are located on the rear I/O panel, are specially color coded, and have larger dual connectors that
distinguish them from the regular USB ports.
C. They are located on the front panel under the power button and above the hard drive and power status
LEDs.
D. The ap5000 does not support powered USB ports.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-D09
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 .What does the Central Management Server (CMS) use to initiate and broker the migration process that
is required for Insight Control server migration capability?
A. FCoE
B. HPoncfg
C. PgAP
D. iSCSI
Answer: D

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NO.2 .An engineer is installing BL460 G7 Server Blades and Virtual Connect FlexFabric modules in a c7000
as part of an HP Converged Infrastructure solution. Which external ports can be used for Fibre Channel
connectivity?
A. the first 2 ports
B. the last 2 ports
C. the first 4 ports
D. the last 4 ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 .You have completed installing a number of Virtual Connect (VC) based enclosure installations and
want to capture the most recent enclosure and VC information of all the enclosures. What is the quickest
way to do this?
A. Connect to the Onboard Administrator GUI and capture an enclosure inventory, then connect to Virtual
Connect Manager (VCM) via SSH and collect a 'show all' output.
B. Use the Virtual Connect Support Utility (VCSU) with the 'collect' option.
C. Use VCSU with the 'healthcheck' option.
D. Connect to the Onboard Administrator GUI and capture an enclosure inventory, then connect to Virtual
Connect Manager (VCM) via Telnet and collect a 'show all' output.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .Which functions does HP SIM provide? (Select three.)
A. continuous device monitoring
B. HP systems software update and tracking
C. server deployment
D. inventory reporting
E. migration of old servers to new ProLiant, maintaining operating system, configuration, and data
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.5 A current multi-enclosure Virtual Connect (VC) domain contains four BladeSystem enclosures cabled
together for a single VC domain. An additional BladeSystem enclosure needs to be added to the
environment.What will provide an optimized and fault tolerant configuration with room for future
expansion?
A. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and configuring in Virtual
Connect Manager
B. creating a secondary VC domain with the new BladeSystem enclosure and configuring in Virtual
Connect SmartStart Manager
C. splitting the current VC domain into two separate VC domains and adding the new BladeSystem
enclosure into one of the newly created VC domains
D. adding the additional BladeSystem enclosure to the current VC domain and upgrading to Virtual
Connect Enterprise Manager to manage more enclosures in the domain
Answer: C

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NO.6 .A feature of HP Insight Control Virtual Machine Management minimizes downtime by performing which
function?
A. relocating virtual machines before hardware failures occur
B. relocating virtual machines after hardware failures occur
C. relocating hosts before hardware failures occur
D. relocating hosts after hardware failures occur
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which elements are required for building a disaster recovery solution using HP Matrix OE, if HP
BladeSystem and HP EVA are already installed? (Select three.)
A. HP Insight Recovery Management
B. HP Application Recovery Manager
C. HP Business Copy EVA
D. HP Replication Solutions Manager EVA
E. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.8 .Click the Exhibit button.The customer sees that the Simulate button for the Room 44L Chiller 1 failure
rule is disabled in the Insight Control Data Center Power Control screen. What should you do to enable
the simulate function for the Room 44L Chiller 1 failure rule?
A. You should copy this rule to a new rule and click on the Simulate button for the new rule.
B. You should edit the rule and mark the Ready for Use button.
C. A rule with the status Not Ready for Use must be at the bottom of the rule list. Therefore, you must use
the down arrow button to move the rule to the bottom of the list.
D. The rule has been simulated before and failed the simulation. Therefore, you must edit the rule,
remove the errors, and then simulate the rule again.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What can enabling "iLO event pass-thru" for event monitoring do?
A. increase workload for the iLO
B. enable iLO event collection by the OS of the server
C. duplicate the events generated for a server
D. enable OA to collect all iLO events in a single log
Answer: C

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NO.10 .Which HP product delivers scale out, excellent performance, and a modular storage infrastructure?
A. HP EVA 6400
B. HP P410i
C. HP P2000 MSA
D. HP X9000
Answer: D

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NO.11 You add new server blades to chassis managed by Matrix OE. What can you use to perform initial
deployment of VMware hypervisor hosts?
A. IO templates
B. IO servers
C. Insight Control deployment jobs
D. VMware vCenter templates
Answer: C

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NO.12 .Which tool can you use to configure a shared data store for VMware hypervisor cluster?
A. VMware vCenter server
B. VMware hypervisor host profile
C. IO storage pool entry
D. Insight Control for VMware vCenter server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which tool is appropriate to use to forecast workload memory utilization for future provisioning?
A. HP Software Operations Orchestration
B. HP Matrix OE Capacity Planning
C. HP Insight Installation Advisor
D. HP System Management Home Page
Answer: B

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NO.14 .Your customer has a Converged Networking solution with an HP Virtual Connect and Physical
Instance enabled network card. The customer asks you to change the vMotion network speed. What
should you do to accomplish this?
A. Change the Required Network Speed within a local VMware Console
B. Change the Required Speed with VMware vSphere client
C. Change the Required Network Speed within Virtual Connect Manager
D. Change the Required Network Speed using Onboard Administrator GUI
Answer: C

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NO.15 .When using Insight Control Performance Management and viewing a server availability report, what
does %Minor indicate?
A. percentage of time that a server is up and available for monitoring
B. percentage of overall performance that might be approaching a bottleneck condition
C. percentage of overall performance that is in a bottleneck condition
D. percentage of overall performance that is satisfactory with no impending or existing bottleneck
condition
Answer: B

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NO.16 .What must be configured or changed in order to enable automated rehosting of virtual or physical
servers in the Converged Infrastructure environment.?
A. resource thresholds
B. storage capacity watermark
C. virtual swap memory setting
D. swap file storage location
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Which virtualization technique does not need to trap and translate all privileged layer instructions
between the guest OS and the actual server hardware?
A. binary translation
B. paravirtualization
C. hosted OS, application-layer abstraction
D. hardware-assisted virtualization
Answer: B

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NO.18 .In a BladeSystem Matrix environment, your logical servers are running low on usable storage capacity.
What can you do on the HP StorageWorks EVA4400 SAN array that was attached to the matrix enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Add additional disk drives and disk enclosure if needed.
B. Change the disk failure protection level to double on the EVA4400.
C. Group new disk drives into the existing disk group.
D. Increase the storage raw capacity by joining two or more units of EVA4400 with the MPX200 router.
E. Change the vRAID level of the virtual disk from level 5 to level 1.
Answer: A, C

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NO.19 .Which HP Power Regulator setting allows reduced power consumption with little or no impact to
performance?
A. Static Low Power mode
B. Static High Performance mode
C. Dynamic Power Savings mode
D. OS Control mode
Answer: C

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NO.20 .How is Dynamic Power Capping achieved?
A. by disabling cores of a processor when a cap is reached
B. by raising the p-state of a processor when a cap is reached
C. by increasing the clock-cycle of a processor when a cap is reached
D. by lowering the p-state of a processor when a cap is reached
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J45
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 During a presentation of a SAN/IQ solution, the customer focuses on the application-managed snapshot
functionality and integration in their Data Protector solution using Zero-Downtime-Backup. The customer
is using a Microsoft environment and needs a solution to shorten their Recovery Point Objective for their
SQL database servers. Which component acts as a requestor in this environment?
A. MS SQL
B. VSS Provider
C. Data Protector
D. P4000 SAN
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has two data centers and needs 3.2TB of space in his P4300 environment. Data should be
mirrored across both data centers. How many nodes are needed to fulfill this requirement?
A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes
Answer: C

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NO.3 When planning an installation of a new SAS Starter solution, how many network cables are
recommended to configure the P4000 G2 solution correctly.?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are planning to integrate a P4800 BladeSystem SAN in a customer's environment. What is the
maximum number of uplink ports that can be connected to the network?
A. two 1GbE and four 10GbE ports
B. five 1GbE ports
C. eight 10GbE ports
D. ten 1GbE ports
Answer: C

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NO.5 At which level in HP P4000 SAN Solutions is RAID configured?
A. volume
B. cluster
C. management group
D. storage node
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S32
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Networking 2011)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which statements are true about port VLAN memberships? (Select three.)
A. A port can be an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
B. A port must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. A port must be a tagged member of only one VLAN.
D. A port can be an untagged member of only one VLAN.
E. A port can be a tagged member of multiple VLANs.
F. A port can be a tagged member of one VLAN and an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.2 What does N_Port ID virtualization do?
A. provides an abstraction layer between the server HBAs and the SAN
B. provides interoperability among third-party SAN device manufacturers
C. provides connectivity between the Virtual Connect module and the Onboard Administrator
D. enables a single HBA port to register multiple, unique WWNs within a fabric
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is considered a Virtual Connect domain in Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager?
A. a maximum of 1,000 enclosures
B. a maximum of 16,000 servers
C. from 1 to 4 enclosures
D. 250 Virtual Connect Manager domains
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager features? (Select three.)
A. is licensed per enclosure
B. is licensed with the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
C. is embedded on the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
D. can administer up to 256,000 network addresses
E. can manage a single domain of up to four enclosures
F. can administer up to 16,000 servers
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.5 What is considered a trunk in a Cisco switching environment?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are configuring Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet modules with Flex-10 server adapters.
What is an important network design consideration?
A. The Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module does not enforce VLAN isolation between
FlexNICs of the same server LAN on Motherboard (LOM).
B. If the Flex-10 server adapters are implemented as mezzanine cards, the Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb
Ethernet module requires all FlexNICs be configured for the same speed.
C. The Virtual Connect Manager will enforce physical port isolation by not allowing FlexNICs of the same
server port to connect to the same Virtual Connect network.
D. LACP trunking is not allowed between Virtual Connect uplink ports and infrastructure switch ports
located on different modules, even if within the same physical switch.
Answer: C

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NO.7 On a Cisco switch, what does the portfast setting do?
A. eliminates auto-negotiation delays with 10GbE ports
B. ensures the link is at maximum speed regardless of configuration
C. causes BPDUs to be blocked if sensed
D. eliminates delays inherent in RSTP/MSTP synchronization
Answer: D

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NO.8 What does trunk refer to in industry-standard terminology?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the requirements for link aggregation using LACP? (Select three.)
A. Links must have the same tagged VLANs assigned.
B. Links must be the same speed.
C. Links must use the same media type.
D. Links must share a boundary.
E. Links must be full-duplex.
F. Links must be fiber connections.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.10 Which is a unique feature of a virtual switch?
A. port mirroring for packet analysis
B. VLAN segmentation at the port level
C. no packet forwarding (routing) between VLANs
D. maximum of 1016 ports per switch
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is used to achieve Fibre Channel data transfer?
A. channel mesh
B. packets
C. tunnels
D. frames
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which spanning tree protocol is the most appropriate in a VLAN-aware, non-proprietary network
implementation?
A. RSTP
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. STP
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can a tagged packet be processed for QoS when it is received on an inbound interface? (Select
three.)
A. The marked priority level can be changed to enforce predetermined classification levels.
B. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on the marked 802.1p priority level.
C. The packet can be moved to a more secure VLAN and its priority remarked.
D. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on a preset policy.
E. The packet can be discarded or rerouted if it does not match a set policy.
F. The packet can be prevented switch traversal for a predetermined penalty period.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.14 What are valid reasons for implementing VLANs? (Select two.)
A. to segregate traffic by resource or application needs
B. to provide enhanced name resolution
C. to reduce subnet cost options
D. to minimize the effect of broadcast traffic on hosts
E. to support multipathing
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 In a switching environment with redundant links, which technology is required for proper operation?
A. VLANs
B. Cisco vPC
C. loop prevention
D. dynamic routing
Answer: C

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NO.16 The IEEE 802.1AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a Layer 2 protocol. What is its
function?
A. dynamically identifies link speeds regardless of media type
B. forms port trunks consisting of two or more uplink ports
C. identifies the VLAN to which frames transmitted on a link or port trunk belong
D. advertises information that describes and identifies devices
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which tasks are used to define a vNet for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Assign only one network per server NIC.
B. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
C. Optionally set the native VLAN.
D. Define the server profile.
E. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
F. Select unassigned uplinks.
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.18 What are valid FlexNIC bandwidth selections? (Select three.)
A. Preferred
B. Assigned
C. Static
D. Custom
E. Dynamic
F. Auto
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.19 Which industry-standard protocols are supported on Virtual Connect Ethernet uplinks? (Select three.)
A. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
B. IEEE 802.1w-2001 Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)
C. IEEE 802.1p Quality of Service (QoS)
D. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Protocol
E. IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging
F. IEEE 802.3af-2003 Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.20 Which port is the lowest-cost path to the spanning tree root bridge?
A. root port
B. defined root port
C. designated port
D. forwarding port
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M46
Exam Name: HP (HP Application Lifecycle Management 11.x Software)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is HP Sprinter?
A. an automated test environment for exploratory testers
B. a manual test environment for exploratory testers
C. a manual test execution environment
D. a manual test development environment
Answer: C

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NO.2 By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new defect is created?
(Select two.)
A. a unique defect ID
B. the status Created
C. a version number
D. the status New
E. a unique test set
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)
A. Cycles
B. Releases
C. Reports
D. Defects
E. Tests
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 A tester reports that when running a test, HP Sprinter is preventing him from attaching a movie of the
test run to the defect he is submitting. How can this problem be resolved?
A. by the user adjusting options in his HP Sprinter user interface
B. by the user re-establishing his HP Application Lifecycle Management connection
C. by the project administrator enabling the llow attaching movies to defects?option on the
Customization > HP Sprinter pageby the project administrator enabling the ?llow attaching movies to
defects?option on the Customization > HP Sprinter page
D. by the project administrator enabling the llow attaching movies to defects?option for the
appropriate user group on the Customization >by the project administrator enabling the ?llow attaching
movies to defects?option for the appropriate user group on the Customization > Groups and
Permissions > Defects page
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does Risk-Based Quality Management enable you to do?
A. determine which requirements to add to the application
B. calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement
C. calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested
D. predict defect per requirement
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?
A. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.
B. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.
C. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.
D. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without disrupting test flow?
A. Defect Highlighter tool
B. Test Defect tool
C. Smart Defect tool
D. Defect Reminder tool
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test run? (Select two.)
A. Ruler tool
B. Step tool
C. Click tool
D. Guides tool
E. Align tool
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect.? (Select two.)
A. Closed
B. Reopened
C. Complete
D. New
E. Reviewed
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application Lifecycle Management?
(Select two.)
A. Smart Identification
B. Defect Checking
C. Smart Defects
D. Smart Defects Identification
E. Defect Reminder
Answer: C,E

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